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NEW QUESTION # 876
What are the four domains that make up CobiT?
- A. Plan and Organize, Acquire and Implement, Deliver and Support, and Monitor and Evaluate
- B. Plan and Organize, Acquire and Implement, Support and Purchase, and Monitor and Evaluate
- C. Plan and Organize, Maintain and Implement, Deliver and Support, and Monitor and Evaluate
- D. Acquire and Implement, Deliver and Support, Monitor, and Evaluate
Answer: A
Explanation:
CobiT has four domains: Plan and Organize, Acquire and Implement, Deliver and Support, and Monitor and Evaluate.
Each category drills down into subcategories. For example, Acquire and Implement contains the following subcategories:
Acquire and Maintain Application Software
Acquire and Maintain Technology Infrastructure
Develop and Maintain Procedures
Install and Accredit Systems
Manage Changes
The following answers are incorrect: Plan and Organize, Maintain and Implement, Deliver and Support, and Monitor and Evaluate Plan and Organize, Acquire and Implement, Support and Purchase, and Monitor and Evaluate Acquire and Implement, Deliver and Support, and Monitor and Evaluate The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question: Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 55). McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition
NEW QUESTION # 877
RAID refers to the:
- A. Remote Administration of Internet Domains.
- B. Rapid And Inexpensive Digital tape backup.
- C. Redundant Arrays of Intelligent Disks.
- D. Redundant And fault tolerant Internetworking Devices.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is Redundant Arrays of Intelligent Disks. The other acronyms do not exist.
NEW QUESTION # 878
An organization has decided to contract with a cloud-based service provider to leverage their identity as a service offering. They will use Open Authentication (OAuth) 2.0 to authenticate external users to the organization's services.
As part of the authentication process, which of the following must the end user provide?
- A. An access token
- B. A username and password
- C. A username
- D. A password
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 879
The IS security analyst's participation in which of the following system development life cycle phases provides maximum benefit to the organization?
- A. Program testing.
- B. Program development.
- C. System requirements definition.
- D. System design.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 880
How are memory cards and smart cards different?
- A. Memory cards have no processing power
- B. Smart cards provide a two-factor authentication whereas memory cards don't
- C. Only smart cards can be used for ATM cards
- D. Memory cards normally hold more memory than smart cards
Answer: A
Explanation:
The main difference between memory cards and smart cards is their capacity to process information. A memory card holds information but cannot process information. A smart card holds information and has the necessary hardware and software to actually process that information.
A memory card holds a user's authentication information, so that this user needs only type in a user ID or PIN and presents the memory card to the system. If the entered information and the stored information match and are approved by an authentication service, the user is successfully authenticated.
A common example of a memory card is a swipe card used to provide entry to a building.
The user enters a PIN and swipes the memory card through a card reader. If this is the correct combination, the reader flashes green and the individual can open the door and enter the building.
Memory cards can also be used with computers, but they require a reader to process the information. The reader adds cost to the process, especially when one is needed for every computer. Additionally, the overhead of PIN and card generation adds additional overhead and complexity to the whole authentication process. However, a memory card provides a more secure authentication method than using only a password because the attacker would need to obtain the card and know the correct PIN.
Administrators and management need to weigh the costs and benefits of a memory card implementation as well as the security needs of the organization to determine if it is the right authentication mechanism for their environment.
One of the most prevalent weaknesses of memory cards is that data stored on the card are not protected. Unencrypted data on the card (or stored on the magnetic strip) can be extracted or copied. Unlike a smart card, where security controls and logic are embedded in the integrated circuit, memory cards do not employ an inherent mechanism to protect the data from exposure.
Very little trust can be associated with confidentiality and integrity of information on the memory cards.
The following answers are incorrect:
"Smart cards provide two-factor authentication whereas memory cards don't" is incorrect.
This is not necessarily true. A memory card can be combined with a pin or password to offer two factors authentication where something you have and something you know are used for factors.
"Memory cards normally hold more memory than smart cards" is incorrect. While a memory card may or may not have more memory than a smart card, this is certainly not the best answer to the question.
"Only smart cards can be used for ATM cards" is incorrect. This depends on the decisions made by the particular institution and is not the best answer to the question.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Shon Harris, CISSP All In One, 6th edition , Access Control, Page 199 and also for people using the Kindle edition of the book you can look at Locations 4647-4650
Schneiter, Andrew (2013-04-15). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition :
Access Control ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 2124-2139). Auerbach Publications.
Kindle Edition.
NEW QUESTION # 881
A packet filtering firewall looks at the data packet to get information about the source and destination addresses of an incoming packet, the protocol (TCP, UDP, or ICMP), and the source and destination port for the:
- A. dedicated service.
- B. distributed service.
- C. desired service.
- D. delayed service.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Packet filtering is a firewall technology that makes access decisions based upon network-level protocol header values. The filters can make access decisions based upon the following basic criteria:
Source and destination port numbers (such as an application port or a service number)
Protocol types
Source and destination IP addresses
Inbound and outbound traffic direction
Incorrect Answers:
B: A packet filtering firewall can grant access to desired services, not dedicated services, through source and destination numbers.
C: A packet filtering firewall can grant access to desired services, not delayed services, through source and destination numbers.
D: A packet filtering firewall can grant access to desired services, not distributed services, through source and destination numbers.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, New York, 2013, p. 630
NEW QUESTION # 882
An organization's retail website provides its only source of revenue, so the disaster recovery plan (DRP) must document an estimated time for each step in the plan. Which of the following steps in the DRP will list the GREATEST duration of time for the service to be fully operational?
- A. Update Domain Name System (DNS) server addresses with domain registrar.
- B. Update the Network Address Translation (NAT) table.
- C. Update the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) autonomous system number.
- D. Update the web server network adapter configuration.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Note that DNS record changes may take 24-48 hours to take effect. This period is called DNS propagation.
NEW QUESTION # 883
What is the proper term to refer to a single unit of Ethernet data?
- A. Ethernet datagram
- B. Ethernet segment
- C. Ethernet frame
- D. Ethernet packet
Answer: C
Explanation:
Ethernet traffic is transported in units of a frame, where each frame has a definite beginning and end. Here is an Ethernet frame:
sysadm-326-image-22
In this picture we define:
*
Preamble Field used for synchronization, 64-bits
*
Destination Address Ethernet address of the destination host, 48-bits
*
Source Address Ethernet address of the source host, 48-bits
*
Type of data encapsulated, e.g. IP, ARP, RARP, etc, 16-bits.
*
Data Field Data area, 46-1500 bytes, which hasDestination Address Internet address of destination hostSource Address Internet address of source host
*
CRC Cyclical Redundancy Check, used for error detection
NEW QUESTION # 884
According to FEMA, which choice below is NOT a recommended way
to purify water after a disaster?
- A. Distilling the water for twenty minutes
- B. Boiling from 3 to 5 minutes
- C. Adding 16 drops per gallon of household liquid bleach to the water
- D. Adding water treatment tablets to the water
Answer: D
Explanation:
FEMArecommends that water treatment products sold in camping
or surplus stores should not be used, unless the only active ingredient is 5.25 percent hypochloritE. When adding liquid bleach, it should contain 5.25 percent hypochlorite and no other added cleaners or
scents. Distilling the water is the most highly recommended method,
as it also removes other chemicals and heavy metals, as well as most
microbes. Source: Emergency Water and Food Procedures, Federal Emergency
Management Agency, April, 1997.
NEW QUESTION # 885
An organization has implemented a protection strategy to secure the network from unauthorized external access. The new Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to increase security by better protecting the network from unauthorized internal access. Which Network Access Control (NAC) capability BEST meets this objective?
- A. Port security
- B. Two-factor authentication (2FA)
- C. Application firewall
- D. Strong passwords
Answer: A
Explanation:
Port security is a technical control that restricts the access to network ports based on the Media Access Control (MAC) address of the device connected to the port. Port security can prevent unauthorized internal access to the network by preventing rogue devices, such as laptops, smartphones, or USB drives, from connecting to the network through an available port. Port security can also prevent unauthorized external access to the network by preventing devices from bypassing the firewall or other perimeter defenses by connecting directly to an internal port. Port security can also prevent network attacks, such as MAC spoofing, MAC flooding, or ARP poisoning, by limiting the number of MAC addresses allowed on a port or by disabling the port if an unauthorized MAC address is detected. References:
* 1 (Domain 4: Communication and Network Security, Objective 4.1: Implement secure design principles in network architectures)
* 2 (Chapter 4: Communication and Network Security, Section 4.1.2: Secure Network Components)
NEW QUESTION # 886
Which of the following is TRUE about Kerberos?
- A. It depends upon symmetric ciphers.
- B. It encrypts data after a ticket is granted, but passwords are exchanged in plain text.
- C. It utilizes public key cryptography.
- D. It is a second party authentication system.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Kerberos makes use of symmetric key cryptography and offers end-to-end security. The majority Kerberos implementations works with shared secret keys.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Kerberos makes use of symmetric key cryptography, which does not include the use of public keys.
B: Kerberos was specifically designed to remove the need to transmit passwords over the network.
D: Kerberos is a trusted third-party service.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, 2013, p. 782
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kerberos_(protocol)
NEW QUESTION # 887
Why is lexical obfuscation in software development discouraged by many organizations?
- A. Problems recovering systems after disaster
- B. Problems maintaining data connections
- C. Problems writing test cases
- D. Problems compiling the code
Answer: A
Explanation:
Lexical obfuscation is a software development technique that involves changing the names of variables, functions, classes, or other identifiers in the source code to make them obscure or meaningless, such as using random letters or numbers. Lexical obfuscation is often used to protect the intellectual property of the software, or to prevent reverse engineering or tampering by attackers. However, lexical obfuscation is discouraged by many organizations because it can cause problems recovering systems after disaster. Lexical obfuscation can make the source code unreadable and incomprehensible, which can hamper the debugging, testing, maintenance, and documentation of the software. Lexical obfuscation can also make the recovery of the software more difficult and time-consuming, especially if the original names of the identifiers are lost or unavailable. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 8: Software Development Security, page 433; [Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 8: Software Development Security, page 573]
NEW QUESTION # 888
There are parallels between the trust models in Kerberos and Public Key Infrastructure (PKI). When we compare them side by side, Kerberos tickets correspond most closely to which of the following?
- A. public-key certificates
- B. public keys
- C. private-key certificates
- D. private keys
Answer: A
Explanation:
A Kerberos ticket is issued by a trusted third party. It is an encrypted data structure
that includes the service encryption key. In that sense it is similar to a public-key certificate.
However, the ticket is not the key.
The following answers are incorrect:
public keys. Kerberos tickets are not shared out publicly, so they are not like a PKI public key.
private keys. Although a Kerberos ticket is not shared publicly, it is not a private key. Private keys
are associated with Asymmetric crypto system which is not used by Kerberos. Kerberos uses only
the Symmetric crypto system.
private key certificates. This is a detractor. There is no such thing as a private key certificate.
NEW QUESTION # 889
In the Capability Maturity Model (CMM) for software, the definition
describes the range of expected results that can be achieved by
following a software process is that of:
- A. Software process maturity
- B. Structured analysis/structured design (SA/SD)
- C. Software process capability
- D. Software process performance
Answer: C
Explanation:
A software process is a set of activities, methods, and practices that are used to develop and maintain software and associated products.
Software process capability is a means of predicting the outcome of the next software project conducted by an organization.
* Answer software process performance, is the result achieved by following a software process. Thus, software capability is aimed at expected results while software performance is focused on results that have been achieved.
*Software process maturity is the extent to which a software process is:
Defined
Managed
Measured
Controlled
Effective
Software process maturity, then, provides for the potential for
growth in capability of an organization. An immature organization
develops software in a crisis mode, usually exceeds budgets and
time schedules, and software processes are developed in an ad hoc
fashion during the project. In a mature organization, the software
process is effectively communicated to staff, the required processes
are documented and consistent, software quality is evaluated, and
roles and responsibilities are understood for the project.
Answer SA/SD is a distracter.
NEW QUESTION # 890
Which security model introduces access to objects only through programs?
- A. The Bell-LaPadula model
- B. The Clark-Wilson model
- C. The information flow model
- D. The Biba model
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the Clark-Wilson model, the subject no longer has direct access to objects but instead must access them through programs (well -formed transactions).
The Clark-Wilson integrity model provides a foundation for specifying and analyzing an integrity
policy for a computing system.
The model is primarily concerned with formalizing the notion of information integrity. Information
integrity is maintained by preventing corruption of data items in a system due to either error or
malicious intent. An integrity policy describes how the data items in the system should be kept
valid from one state of the system to the next and specifies the capabilities of various principals in
the system. The model defines enforcement rules and certification rules.
Clark-Wilson is more clearly applicable to business and industry processes in which the integrity
of the information content is paramount at any level of classification.
Integrity goals of Clark-Wilson model:
Prevent unauthorized users from making modification (Only this one is addressed by the Biba
model).
Separation of duties prevents authorized users from making improper modifications.
Well formed transactions: maintain internal and external consistency i.e. it is a series of operations
that are carried out to transfer the data from one consistent state to the other.
The following are incorrect answers:
The Biba model is incorrect. The Biba model is concerned with integrity and controls access to
objects based on a comparison of the security level of the subject to that of the object.
The Bell-LaPdaula model is incorrect. The Bell-LaPaula model is concerned with confidentiality
and controls access to objects based on a comparison of the clearence level of the subject to the
classification level of the object.
The information flow model is incorrect. The information flow model uses a lattice where objects
are labelled with security classes and information can flow either upward or at the same level. It is
similar in framework to the Bell-LaPadula model.
References:
ISC2 Official Study Guide, Pages 325 - 327
AIO3, pp. 284 - 287
AIOv4 Security Architecture and Design (pages 338 - 342)
AIOv5 Security Architecture and Design (pages 341 - 344)
Wikipedia at: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Clark-Wilson_model
NEW QUESTION # 891
When defining a set of security controls to mitigate a risk, which of the following actions MUST occur?
- A. Each control's effectiveness must be evaluated individually.
- B. The control set must evenly divided the risk.
- C. The control set must adequately mitigate the risk.
- D. Each control must completely mitigate the risk.
Answer: C
Explanation:
When defining a set of security controls to mitigate a risk, the following action must occur: the control set must adequately mitigate the risk. This means that the control set must reduce the risk to an acceptable level, based on the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization. The control set must also be cost-effective, feasible, and aligned with the business objectives and requirements. The control set must not necessarily completely mitigate the risk, as this may not be possible or desirable, depending on the nature and impact of the risk. The control set must not necessarily evenly divide the risk, as this may not be optimal or efficient, depending on the distribution and correlation of the risk. Each control's effectiveness must be evaluated individually, but this is not the only action that must occur when defining a control set. References: [Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Fifth Edition], Chapter 1: Security and Risk Management, page 21. CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1: Security and Risk Management, page 33.
NEW QUESTION # 892
What industry-recognized document could be used as a baseline reference that is related to data security and business operations for conducting a security assessment?
- A. Service Organization Control (SOC) 1 Type 1
- B. Service Organization Control (SOC) 2 Type 2
- C. Service Organization Control (SOC) 2 Type 1
- D. Service Organization Control (SOC) 1 Type 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
SOC 2 Audits are not shared publicly unless a NDA is given, so this would work for an internal audit that would not be shared outside the organization | Type 1 report would cover a point in time providing a baseline per the question.
NEW QUESTION # 893
An organization seeks to use a cloud Identity and Access Management (IAM) provider whose protocols and data formats are incompatible with existing systems.
- A. Install an on-premise Authentication Gateway Service (AGS) In front of the service provider.
- B. Require the cloud IAM provider to use declarative security instead of programmatic authentication checks.
- C. Integrate a Web-Application Firewall (WAF) In reverie-proxy mode in front of the service provider.
- D. Apply Transport layer Security (TLS) to the cloud-based authentication checks.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 894
Which of the following statements pertaining to RAID technologies is incorrect?
- A. RAID-5 has a higher performance in read/write speeds than the other levels.
- B. RAID-3 uses byte-level striping with dedicated parity .
- C. RAID-0 relies solely on striping.
- D. RAID-4 uses dedicated parity.
Answer: A
Explanation:
RAID-0, not RAID-5, relying solely on striping, has a higher performance in
read/write speeds than the other levels, but it does not provide data redundancy.
Source: SWANSON, Marianne, & al., National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), NIST
Special Publication 800-34, Contingency Planning Guide for Information Technology Systems,
December 2001 (page 45).
NEW QUESTION # 895
......
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